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Hi again!
The AP Stat test is coming...! whoah...
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I know, right? :)
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When interpreting confidence interval, the interpretation says "We are C% confident that an interval captures the population parameter".
Then, when I say, for example
- C% of the sample measurements fall between the interval.
is it wrong? why?
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because the interval is centered on the sample's mean, not the population mean.
if you take repeated samples from the population C% of the samples will produce CIs that contain the pop mean.
but it would be false to say that the CI based on the PE from the sample contains C% of the sample measurements, unless that sample's mean happened to be exactly equal to the population mean. which is unlikely :)
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